Browse papers
A

Section A: Long Answer Questions

Attempt all questions.

5 questions
1long10 marks

Four coplanar concurrent forces act at a point OO as shown below. Their magnitudes and the angles each makes with the positive xx-axis (measured counter-clockwise) are:

ForceMagnitude (kN)Angle from +x axis
F1F_11203030^\circ
F2F_280110110^\circ
F3F_3150210210^\circ
F4F_4100315315^\circ

(a) Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant of this force system.
(b) State the equation of the single force that would keep the particle in equilibrium (the equilibrant).

Concept. For a concurrent force system the resultant is obtained by adding the rectangular components: Rx=FxR_x=\sum F_x, Ry=FyR_y=\sum F_y, R=Rx2+Ry2R=\sqrt{R_x^2+R_y^2}, and θ=tan1(Ry/Rx)\theta=\tan^{-1}(R_y/R_x).

Step 1 — Resolve each force.

ForceFcosθF\cos\theta (kN)FsinθF\sin\theta (kN)
F1F_1120cos30=+103.923120\cos30^\circ = +103.923120sin30=+60.000120\sin30^\circ = +60.000
F2F_280cos110=27.36280\cos110^\circ = -27.36280sin110=+75.17580\sin110^\circ = +75.175
F3F_3150cos210=129.904150\cos210^\circ = -129.904150sin210=75.000150\sin210^\circ = -75.000
F4F_4100cos315=+70.711100\cos315^\circ = +70.711100sin315=70.711100\sin315^\circ = -70.711

Step 2 — Sum the components.

Rx=103.92327.362129.904+70.711=+17.368 kNR_x=103.923-27.362-129.904+70.711 = +17.368\ \text{kN} Ry=60.000+75.17575.00070.711=10.536 kNR_y=60.000+75.175-75.000-70.711 = -10.536\ \text{kN}

Step 3 — Magnitude.

R=17.3682+(10.536)2=301.65+111.01=412.66=20.31 kNR=\sqrt{17.368^2+(-10.536)^2}=\sqrt{301.65+111.01}=\sqrt{412.66}=20.31\ \text{kN}

Step 4 — Direction. Since Rx>0R_x>0 and Ry<0R_y<0, the resultant lies in the fourth quadrant.

θ=tan1 ⁣(10.53617.368)=31.25\theta=\tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{-10.536}{17.368}\right)=-31.25^\circ

(a) Result: R=20.31 kN at 31.25 below the +x axis (i.e. 328.75 CCW)\boxed{R = 20.31\ \text{kN at } 31.25^\circ \text{ below the +x axis (i.e. } 328.75^\circ \text{ CCW)}}.

(b) Equilibrant. The equilibrant is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant:

E=20.31 kN at 148.75 CCW from +x axis.\boxed{E = 20.31\ \text{kN at } 148.75^\circ \text{ CCW from +x axis.}}
force-systemsresultantconcurrent-forces
2long10 marks

A simply supported plane truss spans between a pin support at AA and a roller support at EE, 12 m12\ \text{m} apart, with intermediate bottom-chord joints at BB (4 m4\ \text{m} from AA), CC (8 m8\ \text{m} from AA) and D=ED=E end. The top chord has joints FF above BB and GG above CC, each at a height of 3 m3\ \text{m}. The loading is a downward 40 kN40\ \text{kN} at joint FF and a downward 60 kN60\ \text{kN} at joint GG. The members are: AB,BC,CEAB, BC, CE (bottom), AF,FG,GEAF, FG, GE (top, with AFAF and GEGE being the inclined end diagonals), FB,GCFB, GC (verticals), and FCFC (one diagonal). Assume the geometry: A(0,0)A(0,0), B(4,0)B(4,0), C(8,0)C(8,0), E(12,0)E(12,0), F(4,3)F(4,3), G(8,3)G(8,3).

(a) Find the support reactions.
(b) Using the method of sections, determine the forces in members BCBC, FCFC, and FGFG, stating tension or compression.

Geometry note. AFAF runs from (0,0)(0,0) to (4,3)(4,3): length =5 m=5\ \text{m}. FCFC runs from (4,3)(4,3) to (8,0)(8,0): length =5 m=5\ \text{m}. GEGE runs from (8,3)(8,3) to (12,0)(12,0): length 5 m5\ \text{m}.

Step 1 — Support reactions. Total downward load =40+60=100 kN=40+60=100\ \text{kN}. Take moments about AA (CCW +). Roller at EE gives vertical reaction RER_E:

MA=0:  RE(12)40(4)60(8)=0\sum M_A=0:\; R_E(12)-40(4)-60(8)=0 RE=160+48012=64012=53.333 kN ()R_E=\frac{160+480}{12}=\frac{640}{12}=53.333\ \text{kN}\ (\uparrow) Fy=0:  RA=10053.333=46.667 kN ()\sum F_y=0:\; R_A=100-53.333=46.667\ \text{kN}\ (\uparrow)

Pin at AA has no horizontal load, so HA=0H_A=0.

Step 2 — Section cut. Cut a vertical section through members FGFG (top), FCFC (diagonal) and BCBC (bottom), just to the right of joint BB/FF. Consider the left portion (joints AA, BB, FF). Acting on it: RA=46.667 kNR_A=46.667\ \text{kN} up at AA, the 40 kN40\ \text{kN} load down at FF, and the three cut member forces.

Force in FGFG. Take moments about C(8,0)C(8,0) to eliminate FCFC and BCBC (both pass through or point at CC). FGFG is horizontal at y=3y=3; its moment arm about CC is 3 m3\ \text{m}.

MC=0:  RA(8)40(4)+FFG(3)=0\sum M_C=0:\; R_A(8)-40(4)+F_{FG}(3)=0

Taking FFGF_{FG} positive in tension (acting away from the joint, i.e. toward +x+x on the left segment, giving a CCW moment about CC of FFG×3F_{FG}\times3 if compressive... let us be explicit). Sum of moments about CC of external forces on the left part:

46.667(8)40(4)=373.33160=213.33 kN\cdotpm (CCW)46.667(8)-40(4)=373.33-160=213.33\ \text{kN·m (CCW)}

This must be balanced by the top chord force. FGFG acts horizontally along the top; for the left segment the only member able to balance this CCW moment is a compressive FGFG pushing in x-x direction at height 33, giving a clockwise moment FFG(3)F_{FG}(3):

FFG(3)=213.33FFG=71.11 kN (Compression)F_{FG}(3)=213.33\Rightarrow F_{FG}=71.11\ \text{kN (Compression)}

Force in BCBC. Take moments about F(4,3)F(4,3) to eliminate FGFG and FCFC. BCBC is horizontal at y=0y=0, arm =3 m=3\ \text{m} about FF.

MF=0:  RA(4)+FBC(3)=0 ?\sum M_F=0:\; R_A(4)+F_{BC}(3)=0\ ?

External moment about FF from left-segment loads: RAR_A at A(0,0)A(0,0), arm horizontal distance =4=4, gives 46.667(4)=186.67 kN\cdotpm46.667(4)=186.67\ \text{kN·m} CCW (the 4040 kN at FF passes through FF, zero moment). A tensile BCBC pulls the segment toward +x+x along y=0y=0, producing a clockwise moment FBC(3)F_{BC}(3) about FF that balances:

FBC(3)=186.67FBC=62.22 kN (Tension)F_{BC}(3)=186.67\Rightarrow F_{BC}=62.22\ \text{kN (Tension)}

Force in FCFC. Use vertical equilibrium of the left segment. FCFC goes from (4,3)(4,3) to (8,0)(8,0), direction cosines: Δx=4, Δy=3, L=5\Delta x=4,\ \Delta y=-3,\ L=5, so vertical component =35FFC=\tfrac{3}{5}F_{FC}.

Fy=0:  RA40+(vertical comp. of FC)=0\sum F_y=0:\; R_A-40+ (\text{vertical comp. of }FC)=0 46.66740+FFC,y=0FFC,y=6.667 kN46.667-40+F_{FC,y}=0\Rightarrow F_{FC,y}=-6.667\ \text{kN}

The member must pull downward on the left segment by 6.667 kN6.667\ \text{kN}, meaning FCFC is in tension with its line pulling the joint FF toward CC (down-right):

FFC=6.6673/5=6.667×53=11.11 kN (Tension)F_{FC}=\frac{6.667}{3/5}=\frac{6.667\times5}{3}=11.11\ \text{kN (Tension)}

Answers.

RA=46.67 kN,RE=53.33 kN\boxed{R_A=46.67\ \text{kN}\uparrow,\quad R_E=53.33\ \text{kN}\uparrow} FFG=71.11 kN (C),FBC=62.22 kN (T),FFC=11.11 kN (T)\boxed{F_{FG}=71.11\ \text{kN (C)},\quad F_{BC}=62.22\ \text{kN (T)},\quad F_{FC}=11.11\ \text{kN (T)}}
trussesmethod-of-jointsmethod-of-sections
3long8 marks

A simply supported beam ABAB of span 8 m8\ \text{m} carries a uniformly distributed load of 15 kN/m15\ \text{kN/m} over the left 4 m4\ \text{m} (from AA), a point load of 30 kN30\ \text{kN} at 6 m6\ \text{m} from AA, and a couple (anticlockwise) of 20 kN\cdotpm20\ \text{kN·m} applied at 7 m7\ \text{m} from AA. Support AA is a pin and support BB is a roller.

(a) Determine the reactions at AA and BB.
(b) Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams, marking salient values and the location of maximum bending moment.

Step 1 — Reactions. UDL resultant =15×4=60 kN=15\times4=60\ \text{kN} acting at 2 m2\ \text{m} from AA. Take moments about AA (CCW +). The applied couple is anticlockwise =+20 kN\cdotpm=+20\ \text{kN·m}.

MA=0:  RB(8)60(2)30(6)+20=0\sum M_A=0:\; R_B(8)-60(2)-30(6)+20=0 RB=120+180208=2808=35.0 kN ()R_B=\frac{120+180-20}{8}=\frac{280}{8}=35.0\ \text{kN}\ (\uparrow) Fy=0:  RA=60+3035=55.0 kN ()\sum F_y=0:\; R_A=60+30-35=55.0\ \text{kN}\ (\uparrow)

Step 2 — Shear force (from left).

  • Just right of AA: V=+55.0 kNV=+55.0\ \text{kN}.
  • At x=4 mx=4\ \text{m} (end of UDL): V=5515(4)=5560=5.0 kNV=55-15(4)=55-60=-5.0\ \text{kN}.
  • The shear crosses zero within the UDL. 5515x=0x=3.667 m55-15x=0\Rightarrow x=3.667\ \text{m}.
  • From 4 m4\ \text{m} to 6 m6\ \text{m} (no load): V=5.0 kNV=-5.0\ \text{kN} constant.
  • Just right of 6 m6\ \text{m}: V=530=35.0 kNV=-5-30=-35.0\ \text{kN}.
  • From 6 m6\ \text{m} to 8 m8\ \text{m}: V=35.0 kNV=-35.0\ \text{kN} constant up to BB, where RB=35R_B=35 closes it to 00. (The couple at 7 m7\ \text{m} does not change shear.)

Step 3 — Bending moment.

  • MA=0M_A=0.
  • For 0x40\le x\le4: M=55x15x22M=55x-15\frac{x^2}{2}. Maximum where V=0V=0 at x=3.667 mx=3.667\ \text{m}:
Mmax=55(3.667)7.5(3.667)2=201.67100.83=100.83 kN\cdotpmM_{max}=55(3.667)-7.5(3.667)^2=201.67-100.83=100.83\ \text{kN·m}
  • At x=4 mx=4\ \text{m}: M=55(4)7.5(16)=220120=100.0 kN\cdotpmM=55(4)-7.5(16)=220-120=100.0\ \text{kN·m}.
  • At x=6 mx=6\ \text{m}: M=RA(6)60(62)=55(6)60(4)=330240=90.0 kN\cdotpmM=R_A(6)-60(6-2)=55(6)-60(4)=330-240=90.0\ \text{kN·m}.
  • At x=7 mx=7^-\ \text{m} (just left of couple): M=55(7)60(5)30(1)=38530030=55.0 kN\cdotpmM=55(7)-60(5)-30(1)=385-300-30=55.0\ \text{kN·m}.
  • At x=7+ mx=7^+\ \text{m} (just right of couple): the anticlockwise couple causes a jump. Using right-side check M7+=RB(1)=35(1)=35.0 kN\cdotpmM_{7^+}=R_B(1)=35(1)=35.0\ \text{kN·m}. The drop of 20 kN\cdotpm20\ \text{kN·m} matches the applied couple.
  • MB=0M_B=0.

Salient diagram (values in kN, kN·m):

SFD:  +55 ......... drops linearly under UDL ......... -5 (at x=4)
      -5 constant to x=6, then -35 to B
BMD:  0 -> rises parabolically -> 100.83 (peak at x=3.667 m)
      -> 100 (x=4) -> 90 (x=6) -> 55 (x=7-) | jump | 35 (x=7+) -> 0 (B)

Answers.

RA=55.0 kN,RB=35.0 kN\boxed{R_A=55.0\ \text{kN}\uparrow,\quad R_B=35.0\ \text{kN}\uparrow} Mmax=100.83 kN\cdotpm at x=3.667 m from A.\boxed{M_{max}=100.83\ \text{kN·m at } x=3.667\ \text{m from }A.}
beam-reactionsshear-forcebending-moment
4long8 marks

An unequal T-section is made of two rectangles: a flange 200 mm200\ \text{mm} wide × 40 mm\times\ 40\ \text{mm} thick on top, and a web 40 mm40\ \text{mm} wide × 160 mm\times\ 160\ \text{mm} deep below it (so total depth =200 mm=200\ \text{mm}).

(a) Locate the centroid of the section, measured from the bottom of the web.
(b) Determine the moment of inertia of the section about the horizontal centroidal axis.

Step 1 — Areas and centroid heights (from bottom of web).

  • Flange: A1=200×40=8000 mm2A_1=200\times40=8000\ \text{mm}^2, located with its centroid at y1=160+402=180 mmy_1=160+\tfrac{40}{2}=180\ \text{mm}.
  • Web: A2=40×160=6400 mm2A_2=40\times160=6400\ \text{mm}^2, centroid at y2=1602=80 mmy_2=\tfrac{160}{2}=80\ \text{mm}.

Total area A=8000+6400=14400 mm2A=8000+6400=14400\ \text{mm}^2.

Step 2 — Centroid.

yˉ=A1y1+A2y2A=8000(180)+6400(80)14400=1,440,000+512,00014400=1,952,00014400=135.56 mm\bar{y}=\frac{A_1 y_1+A_2 y_2}{A}=\frac{8000(180)+6400(80)}{14400}=\frac{1{,}440{,}000+512{,}000}{14400}=\frac{1{,}952{,}000}{14400}=135.56\ \text{mm}

(a) Centroid is 135.56 mm\boxed{135.56\ \text{mm}} above the bottom of the web.

Step 3 — Moment of inertia about centroidal axis (parallel-axis theorem).

For each rectangle: I=bh312+Ad2I=\frac{bh^3}{12}+A d^2, where d=yiyˉd=|y_i-\bar{y}|.

Flange: bh312=200×40312=200×6400012=1,066,667 mm4\frac{bh^3}{12}=\frac{200\times40^3}{12}=\frac{200\times64000}{12}=1{,}066{,}667\ \text{mm}^4. d1=180135.56=44.44 mmd_1=180-135.56=44.44\ \text{mm}, A1d12=8000×44.442=8000×1974.9=15,799,200 mm4A_1 d_1^2=8000\times44.44^2=8000\times1974.9=15{,}799{,}200\ \text{mm}^4. Flange total =1,066,667+15,799,200=16,865,867 mm4=1{,}066{,}667+15{,}799{,}200=16{,}865{,}867\ \text{mm}^4.

Web: bh312=40×160312=40×4,096,00012=13,653,333 mm4\frac{bh^3}{12}=\frac{40\times160^3}{12}=\frac{40\times4{,}096{,}000}{12}=13{,}653{,}333\ \text{mm}^4. d2=135.5680=55.56 mmd_2=135.56-80=55.56\ \text{mm}, A2d22=6400×55.562=6400×3086.9=19,756,160 mm4A_2 d_2^2=6400\times55.56^2=6400\times3086.9=19{,}756{,}160\ \text{mm}^4. Web total =13,653,333+19,756,160=33,409,493 mm4=13{,}653{,}333+19{,}756{,}160=33{,}409{,}493\ \text{mm}^4.

Step 4 — Sum.

Ixˉ=16,865,867+33,409,493=50,275,360 mm4I_{\bar{x}}=16{,}865{,}867+33{,}409{,}493=50{,}275{,}360\ \text{mm}^4

(b) Ixˉ50.28×106 mm4\boxed{I_{\bar{x}}\approx 50.28\times10^{6}\ \text{mm}^4}.

centroidmoment-of-inertiacomposite-section
5long8 marks

A uniform ladder 6 m6\ \text{m} long and weighing 250 N250\ \text{N} rests with its top against a smooth (frictionless) vertical wall and its foot on a rough horizontal floor, making an angle of 6060^\circ with the floor. The coefficient of friction between ladder and floor is μ=0.30\mu=0.30.

(a) Determine the reactions at the wall and floor when the ladder is on the verge of slipping with only its own weight.
(b) How far up the ladder (along its length) can an 800 N800\ \text{N} person climb before the ladder begins to slip?

Setup. Let NfN_f = normal reaction at floor, F=μNfF=\mu N_f = friction at floor (acts toward the wall), NwN_w = horizontal reaction at the smooth wall. Ladder inclined at θ=60\theta=60^\circ. Weight W=250 NW=250\ \text{N} at the midpoint (3 m3\ \text{m} along).

(a) Ladder alone.

Vertical: Nf=W=250 NN_f=W=250\ \text{N}. Friction available =μNf=0.30×250=75 N=\mu N_f=0.30\times250=75\ \text{N}, so horizontal equilibrium gives Nw=F=75 NN_w=F=75\ \text{N} (if on the verge).

Check moment about the foot OO to find the NwN_w actually required for equilibrium:

MO=0:  Nw(Lsinθ)W(L2cosθ)=0\sum M_O=0:\; N_w(L\sin\theta)-W\left(\tfrac{L}{2}\cos\theta\right)=0 Nw=Wcosθ2sinθ=250cos602sin60=250(0.5)2(0.8660)=1251.7321=72.17 NN_w=\frac{W\cos\theta}{2\sin\theta}=\frac{250\cos60^\circ}{2\sin60^\circ}=\frac{250(0.5)}{2(0.8660)}=\frac{125}{1.7321}=72.17\ \text{N}

Required friction =72.17 N<75 N=72.17\ \text{N} < 75\ \text{N} available, so the ladder is safe under its own weight.

Nf=250 N,Nw=72.17 N, F=72.17 N (ladder does not slip)\boxed{N_f=250\ \text{N},\quad N_w=72.17\ \text{N},\ F=72.17\ \text{N (ladder does not slip)}}

(b) Person of weight P=800 NP=800\ \text{N} at distance ss along the ladder.

Vertical: Nf=W+P=250+800=1050 NN_f=W+P=250+800=1050\ \text{N}. Maximum friction (slipping impends): Fmax=μNf=0.30×1050=315 NF_{max}=\mu N_f=0.30\times1050=315\ \text{N}. Hence at impending slip Nw=315 NN_w=315\ \text{N}.

Moment about foot OO (CCW +), with horizontal distances: weight at L2cosθ\tfrac{L}{2}\cos\theta, person at scosθs\cos\theta, wall reaction arm LsinθL\sin\theta:

Nw(Lsinθ)=W(L2cosθ)+P(scosθ)N_w(L\sin\theta)=W\left(\tfrac{L}{2}\cos\theta\right)+P\,(s\cos\theta) 315(6sin60)=250(3cos60)+800scos60315(6\sin60^\circ)=250(3\cos60^\circ)+800\,s\cos60^\circ 315(6×0.8660)=250(3×0.5)+800s(0.5)315(6\times0.8660)=250(3\times0.5)+800\,s(0.5) 315(5.196)=375+400s315(5.196)=375+400s 1636.7=375+400s400s=1261.7s=3.154 m1636.7=375+400s\Rightarrow 400s=1261.7\Rightarrow s=3.154\ \text{m}

(b) The person can climb s3.15 m\boxed{s\approx3.15\ \text{m}} along the ladder (about 52.6%52.6\% of its length) before slipping begins.

frictionequilibriumladder-friction
B

Section B: Short Answer Questions

Attempt all questions.

6 questions
6short6 marks

(a) State and prove Varignon's theorem of moments.
(b) A force of 50 N50\ \text{N} acts at point (3,1) m(3, 1)\ \text{m} with direction making 4040^\circ above the +x axis. Using Varignon's theorem, find the moment of this force about the origin.

(a) Varignon's theorem. The moment of a force about any point equals the sum of the moments of its components about the same point.

Proof. Let force F\vec{F} act at position r\vec{r} from point OO, and let F=F1+F2\vec{F}=\vec{F_1}+\vec{F_2} (its components). The moment about OO is MO=r×F\vec{M}_O=\vec{r}\times\vec{F}. By distributivity of the cross product:

r×F=r×(F1+F2)=r×F1+r×F2=MO,1+MO,2\vec{r}\times\vec{F}=\vec{r}\times(\vec{F_1}+\vec{F_2})=\vec{r}\times\vec{F_1}+\vec{r}\times\vec{F_2}=\vec{M}_{O,1}+\vec{M}_{O,2}

Thus the moment of the resultant equals the sum of the moments of the components. \blacksquare

(b) Application. Resolve the 50 N50\ \text{N} force at (3,1)(3,1):

Fx=50cos40=38.302 N,Fy=50sin40=32.139 NF_x=50\cos40^\circ=38.302\ \text{N},\qquad F_y=50\sin40^\circ=32.139\ \text{N}

Moment about origin (CCW positive) MO=xFyyFxM_O=x F_y - y F_x:

MO=(3)(32.139)(1)(38.302)=96.41838.302=58.12 N\cdotpmM_O=(3)(32.139)-(1)(38.302)=96.418-38.302=58.12\ \text{N·m} MO=58.12 N\cdotpm (anticlockwise).\boxed{M_O=58.12\ \text{N·m (anticlockwise).}}
momentvarignon-theoremcouple
7short6 marks

Using the principle of virtual work, determine the reaction at the roller support BB of a simply supported beam ABAB of span 10 m10\ \text{m} (AA pin, BB roller) carrying a single point load of 120 kN120\ \text{kN} at 4 m4\ \text{m} from AA. State the principle of virtual work before solving.

Principle of virtual work. If a system in equilibrium is given an arbitrary, infinitesimal, geometrically compatible (virtual) displacement, the total virtual work done by all the active forces is zero: δW=0\delta W=0.

Step 1 — Release the redundant for RBR_B. To find RBR_B, remove the roller and replace it by the unknown RBR_B. Give the beam a virtual rotation δθ\delta\theta about the pin AA. Then:

  • Vertical virtual displacement at BB (distance 10 m10\ \text{m} from AA): δB=10δθ\delta_B=10\,\delta\theta (upward, in the sense of RBR_B).
  • Vertical virtual displacement under the load (at 4 m4\ \text{m}): δL=4δθ\delta_L=4\,\delta\theta (in the same rotational sense, downward where the load acts).

Step 2 — Virtual work equation. RBR_B acts upward and moves up; the 120 kN120\ \text{kN} load acts downward and the point moves down by 4δθ4\delta\theta (negative work as a resisting load, positive as an applied downward force moving down). Setting total virtual work to zero with consistent signs (upward reaction does ++ work for upward δB\delta_B, downward load does ++ work for downward δL\delta_L — but they oppose for equilibrium):

RB(10δθ)120(4δθ)=0R_B(10\,\delta\theta)-120(4\,\delta\theta)=0 δθ[10RB480]=0\delta\theta\,[10R_B-480]=0

Since δθ0\delta\theta\neq0:

RB=48010=48.0 kNR_B=\frac{480}{10}=48.0\ \text{kN}

Check by statics: MA=0RB(10)=120(4)RB=48 kN\sum M_A=0\Rightarrow R_B(10)=120(4)\Rightarrow R_B=48\ \text{kN}. ✓

RB=48.0 kN ().\boxed{R_B=48.0\ \text{kN}\ (\uparrow).}
virtual-workequilibriumbeam-reactions
8short6 marks

Locate the centroid of a quarter circular lamina of radius RR from first principles (integration), and hence find the centroid of a composite plane area consisting of a 120 mm×80 mm120\ \text{mm}\times80\ \text{mm} rectangle (lower-left corner at origin, sides along axes) from which a quarter circle of radius 40 mm40\ \text{mm} centred at the corner (120,80)(120,80) is removed.

Part 1 — Quarter circle centroid by integration. Consider a quarter circle of radius RR in the first quadrant centred at the origin. Using polar elements, by symmetry xˉ=yˉ\bar{x}=\bar{y}. The standard result derived from xˉ=1AxdA\bar{x}=\dfrac{1}{A}\int x\,dA with A=πR24A=\tfrac{\pi R^2}{4} gives:

xˉ=yˉ=4R3π0.4244R\bar{x}=\bar{y}=\frac{4R}{3\pi}\approx0.4244R

(Derivation: AxdA=0π/2 ⁣0R(rcosϕ)rdrdϕ=R33[sinϕ]0π/2=R33\int_A x\,dA=\int_0^{\pi/2}\!\int_0^R (r\cos\phi)\,r\,dr\,d\phi=\frac{R^3}{3}[\sin\phi]_0^{\pi/2}=\frac{R^3}{3}; dividing by A=πR24A=\frac{\pi R^2}{4} gives 4R3π\frac{4R}{3\pi}.)

Part 2 — Composite area. Take the full rectangle as positive area and the removed quarter circle as negative.

Rectangle: A1=120×80=9600 mm2A_1=120\times80=9600\ \text{mm}^2, centroid (xˉ1,yˉ1)=(60,40)(\bar{x}_1,\bar{y}_1)=(60,40).

Removed quarter circle (radius 4040, centred at (120,80)(120,80), occupying the region inside the rectangle near that corner — i.e. extending toward x-x and y-y from the corner): A2=π(40)24=π×16004=1256.64 mm2A_2=\tfrac{\pi(40)^2}{4}=\tfrac{\pi\times1600}{4}=1256.64\ \text{mm}^2. Its centroid lies at distance 4R3π=4(40)3π=16.977 mm\frac{4R}{3\pi}=\frac{4(40)}{3\pi}=16.977\ \text{mm} from the corner along each inward axis:

xˉ2=12016.977=103.023 mm,yˉ2=8016.977=63.023 mm\bar{x}_2=120-16.977=103.023\ \text{mm},\qquad \bar{y}_2=80-16.977=63.023\ \text{mm}

Net area: A=96001256.64=8343.36 mm2A=9600-1256.64=8343.36\ \text{mm}^2.

Centroid:

xˉ=A1xˉ1A2xˉ2A=9600(60)1256.64(103.023)8343.36=5760001294638343.36=4465378343.36=53.52 mm\bar{x}=\frac{A_1\bar{x}_1-A_2\bar{x}_2}{A}=\frac{9600(60)-1256.64(103.023)}{8343.36}=\frac{576000-129463}{8343.36}=\frac{446537}{8343.36}=53.52\ \text{mm} yˉ=A1yˉ1A2yˉ2A=9600(40)1256.64(63.023)8343.36=384000791998343.36=3048018343.36=36.53 mm\bar{y}=\frac{A_1\bar{y}_1-A_2\bar{y}_2}{A}=\frac{9600(40)-1256.64(63.023)}{8343.36}=\frac{384000-79199}{8343.36}=\frac{304801}{8343.36}=36.53\ \text{mm} xˉ=53.52 mm,yˉ=36.53 mm (from the origin).\boxed{\bar{x}=53.52\ \text{mm},\quad \bar{y}=36.53\ \text{mm}\ \text{(from the origin).}}
centroidcomposite-areafirst-moment
9short6 marks

A block of weight 500 N500\ \text{N} rests on a rough inclined plane that makes 2525^\circ with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between block and plane is 0.250.25.

(a) Determine the force PP applied parallel to the incline (up the slope) that is just sufficient to move the block up the plane.
(b) Determine the minimum force PP (parallel to the incline) required to hold the block from sliding down.

Setup. W=500 NW=500\ \text{N}, α=25\alpha=25^\circ, μ=0.25\mu=0.25. Normal reaction (force normal to plane): N=Wcosα=500cos25=500(0.9063)=453.15 NN=W\cos\alpha=500\cos25^\circ=500(0.9063)=453.15\ \text{N}. Maximum friction =μN=0.25×453.15=113.29 N=\mu N=0.25\times453.15=113.29\ \text{N}. Weight component along plane (down-slope) =Wsinα=500sin25=500(0.4226)=211.31 N=W\sin\alpha=500\sin25^\circ=500(0.4226)=211.31\ \text{N}.

(a) Motion impending up the plane. Friction acts down the slope (opposing upward motion):

P=Wsinα+μN=211.31+113.29=324.60 NP=W\sin\alpha+\mu N=211.31+113.29=324.60\ \text{N} Pup=324.60 N (up the incline).\boxed{P_{up}=324.60\ \text{N (up the incline).}}

(b) Block about to slide down — minimum holding force. Friction now acts up the slope (opposing downward motion), aiding PP:

P=WsinαμN=211.31113.29=98.02 NP=W\sin\alpha-\mu N=211.31-113.29=98.02\ \text{N}

Since this is positive, a force is indeed needed to prevent sliding (the slope angle 2525^\circ exceeds the friction angle ϕ=tan10.25=14.04\phi=\tan^{-1}0.25=14.04^\circ).

Phold=98.02 N (up the incline).\boxed{P_{hold}=98.02\ \text{N (up the incline).}}
frictionwedgeinclined-plane
10short5 marks

A weight of 900 N900\ \text{N} is suspended from a point OO by two cables. Cable OAOA makes 3030^\circ with the horizontal ceiling and cable OBOB makes 4545^\circ with the horizontal ceiling, on opposite sides of the vertical through OO. Determine the tensions TAT_A and TBT_B in the two cables.

Free-body of joint OO. Three forces meet: the 900 N900\ \text{N} weight (down), TAT_A along OAOA (up-left at 3030^\circ above horizontal), TBT_B along OBOB (up-right at 4545^\circ above horizontal).

Equilibrium equations.

Horizontal (Fx=0\sum F_x=0): TAcos30=TBcos45T_A\cos30^\circ=T_B\cos45^\circ

TA(0.8660)=TB(0.7071)TA=0.8165TB(i)T_A(0.8660)=T_B(0.7071)\Rightarrow T_A=0.8165\,T_B \quad (i)

Vertical (Fy=0\sum F_y=0): TAsin30+TBsin45=900T_A\sin30^\circ+T_B\sin45^\circ=900

0.5TA+0.7071TB=900(ii)0.5\,T_A+0.7071\,T_B=900 \quad (ii)

Solve. Substitute (i) into (ii):

0.5(0.8165TB)+0.7071TB=9000.5(0.8165\,T_B)+0.7071\,T_B=900 0.40825TB+0.7071TB=9000.40825\,T_B+0.7071\,T_B=900 1.11535TB=900TB=806.92 N1.11535\,T_B=900\Rightarrow T_B=806.92\ \text{N} TA=0.8165×806.92=658.85 NT_A=0.8165\times806.92=658.85\ \text{N} TA=658.85 N,TB=806.92 N.\boxed{T_A=658.85\ \text{N},\quad T_B=806.92\ \text{N}.}
force-systemsequilibriumfree-body-diagram
11short7 marks

(a) Define moment of inertia of an area, polar moment of inertia, and radius of gyration, and state the perpendicular-axis theorem.
(b) For a solid circular area of diameter 100 mm100\ \text{mm}, compute IxI_x, IyI_y, the polar moment JJ, and the radius of gyration about a diameter.

(a) Definitions.

  • Moment of inertia (second moment) of an area about an axis: Ix=y2dAI_x=\int y^2\,dA, Iy=x2dAI_y=\int x^2\,dA. It measures the distribution of area about that axis.
  • Polar moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane through a point: J=r2dA=(x2+y2)dAJ=\int r^2\,dA=\int (x^2+y^2)\,dA.
  • Radius of gyration about an axis: k=I/Ak=\sqrt{I/A}; the distance at which the whole area may be concentrated to give the same II.
  • Perpendicular-axis theorem: for a plane area, J=Ix+IyJ=I_x+I_y (the polar moment about an axis normal to the plane equals the sum of the two in-plane moments of inertia about perpendicular axes through the same point).

(b) Solid circle, diameter d=100 mmd=100\ \text{mm}, radius r=50 mmr=50\ \text{mm}.

Area A=πd24=π(100)24=7853.98 mm2A=\dfrac{\pi d^2}{4}=\dfrac{\pi(100)^2}{4}=7853.98\ \text{mm}^2.

Moment of inertia about a diameter:

Ix=Iy=πd464=π(100)464=π×10864=4,908,739 mm44.909×106 mm4I_x=I_y=\frac{\pi d^4}{64}=\frac{\pi (100)^4}{64}=\frac{\pi\times10^8}{64}=4{,}908{,}739\ \text{mm}^4\approx4.909\times10^{6}\ \text{mm}^4

Polar moment (perpendicular-axis theorem):

J=Ix+Iy=2(4.909×106)=9.817×106 mm4=πd432J=I_x+I_y=2(4.909\times10^{6})=9.817\times10^{6}\ \text{mm}^4=\frac{\pi d^4}{32}

Radius of gyration about a diameter:

kx=IxA=4,908,7397853.98=625.0=25.0 mmk_x=\sqrt{\frac{I_x}{A}}=\sqrt{\frac{4{,}908{,}739}{7853.98}}=\sqrt{625.0}=25.0\ \text{mm}

(Equivalently kx=d/4=100/4=25 mmk_x=d/4=100/4=25\ \text{mm}.)

Ix=Iy=4.909×106 mm4,J=9.817×106 mm4,k=25.0 mm.\boxed{I_x=I_y=4.909\times10^{6}\ \text{mm}^4,\quad J=9.817\times10^{6}\ \text{mm}^4,\quad k=25.0\ \text{mm}.}
moment-of-inertiapolar-momentradius-of-gyration

Frequently asked questions

Where can I find the BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) question paper 2080?
The full BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) 2080 (regular) question paper is available free on Kekkei. You can read every question online and attempt the paper under timed exam conditions.
Does the Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) 2080 paper come with solutions?
Yes. Every question on this Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) past paper includes a step-by-step solution, plus instant AI feedback when you attempt it on Kekkei.
How many marks is the BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) 2080 paper?
The BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) 2080 paper carries 80 full marks and is meant to be completed in 180 minutes, across 11 questions.
Is practising this Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) past paper free?
Yes — reading and attempting this Applied Mechanics - Statics (IOE, CE 402) past paper on Kekkei is completely free.