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LevelNCLEX-PN
SubjectNCLEX-PN
Year2025 BS
Exam sessionModel questions
Full marks205
Time allowed300 minutes
Questions10, all with step-by-step solutions
A

Practical Nursing

Select the best answer.

10 questions·1 mark each
1Multiple choice1 mark

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is caring for a patient who has been receiving IV vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) wound infection. The patient develops a diffuse erythematous rash over the face, neck, and upper torso approximately 10 minutes after the infusion is started. The patient reports intense itching but denies dyspnea. Vital signs show blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 98 bpm, and respiratory rate 18. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

  • a

    Slow the infusion rate and continue monitoring

  • b

    Stop the infusion and notify the registered nurse or provider

  • c

    Administer epinephrine intramuscularly

  • d

    Apply a cool compress and continue the infusion at the same rate

Correct answer: b

Stop the infusion and notify the registered nurse or provider

This presentation is consistent with “Red Man Syndrome” (vancomycin flushing reaction), a histamine-mediated reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. It is NOT a true allergy. The most appropriate initial nursing action is to stop the infusion immediately and notify the registered nurse or physician. The infusion can typically be restarted at a slower rate after symptoms resolve, often with premedication with diphenhydramine.

safe-care
2Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.125 mg orally to an elderly patient with heart failure. Before administering the medication, the nurse takes the patient’s apical pulse and finds it to be 54 beats per minute. The patient reports feeling slightly dizzy. The most recent serum digoxin level was 2.4 ng/mL (therapeutic range: 0.8–2.0 ng/mL). Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

  • a

    Administer the digoxin as prescribed

  • b

    Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider

  • c

    Administer half the prescribed dose

  • d

    Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes and administer if above 50 bpm

Correct answer: b

Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider

The patient has signs of digoxin toxicity: serum digoxin level above therapeutic range (2.4 ng/mL), heart rate below 60 bpm (bradycardia), and dizziness. The standard nursing protocol for digoxin is to hold the medication if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm in an adult and notify the provider. Given the supratherapeutic digoxin level and symptoms, it is critical to withhold the dose and report immediately.

pharmacology
3Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is providing discharge teaching to a 62-year-old patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been started on metformin. The patient asks about dietary modifications. Which of the following dietary recommendations is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

  • a

    Eliminate all carbohydrates from the diet

  • b

    Eat consistent amounts of complex carbohydrates distributed evenly throughout the day

  • c

    Eat one large meal per day to simplify glucose monitoring

  • d

    Follow a high-protein, high-fat diet with no restrictions on meal timing

Correct answer: b

Eat consistent amounts of complex carbohydrates distributed evenly throughout the day

For patients with type 2 diabetes, the ADA recommends an individualized meal plan emphasizing consistent carbohydrate intake distributed throughout the day, with a focus on complex carbohydrates (whole grains, vegetables, legumes) rather than simple sugars. A completely carbohydrate-free diet is not recommended. The focus should be on portion control, choosing nutrient-dense foods, and spacing meals evenly.

health-promotion
4Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is caring for a post-operative patient who underwent abdominal surgery 2 days ago. The patient suddenly coughs violently and reports feeling a “pop” in the abdominal wound. On inspection, the nurse observes the wound has opened and a loop of intestine is visible through the incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?

  • a

    Gently push the intestine back into the abdomen and apply a sterile dressing

  • b

    Cover the wound with a sterile saline-moistened dressing and call for help immediately

  • c

    Apply a dry sterile dressing and have the patient ambulate to the nurse’s station

  • d

    Apply an abdominal binder tightly and reassess in 15 minutes

Correct answer: b

Cover the wound with a sterile saline-moistened dressing and call for help immediately

This is wound evisceration — protrusion of abdominal organs through an open surgical wound. This is a surgical emergency. The immediate nursing priority is to cover the exposed viscera with sterile saline-moistened dressings to prevent drying, contamination, and tissue damage. The nurse should then position the patient supine with knees bent, avoid any attempts to push the organs back in, and call for immediate medical assistance.

physiological-adaptation
5Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is caring for a 70-year-old patient recently admitted to a long-term care facility after the death of her spouse. The patient has been refusing meals, sleeping most of the day, and states, “I have nothing left to live for. I just want to be with my husband.” Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing response?

  • a

    “Don’t worry, you’ll feel better once you settle in here.”

  • b

    “Are you thinking about harming yourself?”

  • c

    “Let me turn on the television to take your mind off things.”

  • d

    “Everyone feels sad when they lose someone. It’s perfectly normal.”

Correct answer: b

“Are you thinking about harming yourself?”

When a patient makes statements suggesting suicidal ideation, the most therapeutic nursing response is to directly and compassionately assess the patient’s intent by asking about thoughts of self-harm. Directly asking about suicide does NOT increase the risk — this is a common myth. Ignoring the statement, providing false reassurance, or changing the subject are non-therapeutic responses.

psychosocial-integrity
6Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is assigned to care for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following patient situations should the LPN address first?

  • a

    A patient requesting pain medication who rates pain as 6/10

  • b

    A patient whose surgical dressing has a small area of serous drainage

  • c

    A patient with COPD whose oxygen saturation has dropped to 85% on 2L nasal cannula

  • d

    A patient who is asking to speak with the dietitian about a meal plan

Correct answer: c

A patient with COPD whose oxygen saturation has dropped to 85% on 2L nasal cannula

Using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework, a patient with a new oxygen saturation of 85% represents an immediate threat to oxygenation and requires urgent assessment and intervention. While pain, dressing changes, and medication requests are important, they do not represent immediate threats to life.

safe-care
7Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is administering medications to a patient prescribed warfarin 5 mg orally daily. The patient’s INR result from this morning is 4.5 (therapeutic range: 2.0–3.0). The patient denies any signs of bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

  • a

    Administer the warfarin as prescribed

  • b

    Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider

  • c

    Administer half the dose and recheck INR tomorrow

  • d

    Administer the warfarin with vitamin K simultaneously

Correct answer: b

Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider

An INR of 4.5 is supratherapeutic (above the target range of 2.0–3.0), placing the patient at increased risk for bleeding. Even though the patient is not currently bleeding, the LPN should hold the warfarin dose and notify the healthcare provider for further orders. Administering the dose would further increase bleeding risk.

pharmacology
8Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is conducting a fall risk assessment on an 80-year-old patient recently admitted to the hospital. The patient has a history of two falls in the past 6 months, uses a walker, takes furosemide and zolpidem, and has mild visual impairment. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important to include in the fall prevention plan?

  • a

    Keep all four side rails raised at all times

  • b

    Ensure the call light is within reach and instruct the patient to call for help before getting up

  • c

    Administer a sedative at night to prevent the patient from getting up

  • d

    Restrict the patient to bed rest for the entire admission

Correct answer: b

Ensure the call light is within reach and instruct the patient to call for help before getting up

For an elderly patient with multiple fall risk factors, ensuring the call light is within reach and instructing the patient to call for assistance before getting up is the single most important immediate intervention. It addresses the most common cause of inpatient falls: unassisted ambulation. Raising all four side rails is considered a restraint and is inappropriate.

health-promotion
9Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is monitoring a patient who is 6 hours post-thyroidectomy. The patient reports tingling and numbness around the mouth and in the fingertips. When the blood pressure cuff is inflated on the patient’s arm, the nurse observes carpopedal spasm (Trousseau’s sign). Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities should the nurse suspect?

  • a

    Hyperkalemia

  • b

    Hyponatremia

  • c

    Hypocalcemia

  • d

    Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: c

Hypocalcemia

Following thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands may be inadvertently damaged or removed, leading to hypoparathyroidism and resultant hypocalcemia. Classic signs include perioral tingling, numbness in extremities, Trousseau’s sign (carpopedal spasm with BP cuff inflation), and Chvostek’s sign (facial muscle twitching when tapping the facial nerve). Severe hypocalcemia can lead to laryngospasm, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias.

physiological-adaptation
10Multiple choice1 mark

An LPN is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient. Ten minutes after starting the transfusion, the patient develops fever (38.9°C), chills, flank pain, and dark-colored urine. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

  • a

    Slow the transfusion rate and administer acetaminophen

  • b

    Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline

  • c

    Administer diphenhydramine and continue the transfusion

  • d

    Obtain a urine specimen and continue the transfusion at a slower rate

Correct answer: b

Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline

This patient is experiencing signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction: fever/chills, flank pain, and dark (hemoglobinuric) urine. The priority nursing action is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of incompatible blood. The nurse should then maintain IV access with normal saline using new tubing, notify the provider and blood bank, and send the blood bag for analysis.

safe-care

Frequently asked questions

Where can I find the NCLEX-PN NCLEX-PN question paper 2025?
The full NCLEX-PN NCLEX-PN 2025 (Model questions) question paper is available free on Kekkei. You can read every question online and attempt the paper under timed exam conditions.
Does the NCLEX-PN 2025 paper come with solutions?
Yes. Every question on this NCLEX-PN past paper includes a step-by-step solution, plus instant AI feedback when you attempt it on Kekkei.
How many marks is the NCLEX-PN NCLEX-PN 2025 paper?
The NCLEX-PN NCLEX-PN 2025 paper carries 205 full marks and is meant to be completed in 300 minutes, across 10 questions.
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