Browse papers
A

Section A: Long Answer Questions

Attempt all questions.

5 questions
1long10 marks

A rectangular sluice gate 2.5 m2.5\ \text{m} wide and 3.0 m3.0\ \text{m} high is installed in the vertical face of a reservoir. The top edge of the gate is 1.5 m1.5\ \text{m} below the free surface of the water. Take ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3 and g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81\ \text{m/s}^2.

(a) Determine the total hydrostatic force acting on the gate.

(b) Locate the centre of pressure (depth below the free surface).

(c) The gate is hinged at its top edge. Compute the horizontal force PP applied at the bottom edge (acting normal to the gate) required to just hold the gate closed.

Given: width b=2.5 mb = 2.5\ \text{m}, height h=3.0 mh = 3.0\ \text{m}, depth of top edge =1.5 m= 1.5\ \text{m}, vertical gate.

Area A=b×h=2.5×3.0=7.5 m2A = b \times h = 2.5 \times 3.0 = 7.5\ \text{m}^2.

Depth of centroid below free surface:

hˉ=1.5+3.02=3.0 m.\bar{h} = 1.5 + \frac{3.0}{2} = 3.0\ \text{m}.

(a) Total hydrostatic force

F=ρghˉA=1000×9.81×3.0×7.5=220725 N220.73 kN.F = \rho g \bar{h} A = 1000 \times 9.81 \times 3.0 \times 7.5 = 220725\ \text{N} \approx \mathbf{220.73\ kN}.

(b) Centre of pressure

Second moment of area about the centroidal horizontal axis:

IG=bh312=2.5×3.0312=2.5×2712=5.625 m4.I_G = \frac{b h^3}{12} = \frac{2.5 \times 3.0^3}{12} = \frac{2.5 \times 27}{12} = 5.625\ \text{m}^4.

For a vertical plane the depth of centre of pressure is:

hcp=hˉ+IGhˉA=3.0+5.6253.0×7.5=3.0+5.62522.5=3.0+0.25=3.25 m below the free surface.h_{cp} = \bar{h} + \frac{I_G}{\bar{h} A} = 3.0 + \frac{5.625}{3.0 \times 7.5} = 3.0 + \frac{5.625}{22.5} = 3.0 + 0.25 = \mathbf{3.25\ m\ below\ the\ free\ surface}.

(c) Force at bottom edge to hold gate closed

Take moments about the top hinge. The hydrostatic resultant acts at the centre of pressure, which is at a distance below the hinge of:

ycp=hcp1.5=3.251.5=1.75 m.y_{cp} = h_{cp} - 1.5 = 3.25 - 1.5 = 1.75\ \text{m}.

The applied force PP acts at the bottom edge, 3.0 m3.0\ \text{m} from the hinge. Moment balance about hinge:

P×3.0=F×1.75P \times 3.0 = F \times 1.75 P=220.725×1.753.0=386.273.0=128.76 kN.P = \frac{220.725 \times 1.75}{3.0} = \frac{386.27}{3.0} = \mathbf{128.76\ kN}.
Free surface --------------------
      | 1.5 m
  ====O==== hinge (top edge)
      |     <- F acts at 1.75 m below hinge
      |  -> P at bottom (3.0 m below hinge)
  =========  bottom edge
hydrostaticsforce-on-surfacescentre-of-pressure
2long10 marks

(a) Starting from Euler's equation of motion along a streamline, derive Bernoulli's equation for steady, incompressible, frictionless flow. State clearly all the assumptions made.

(b) A horizontal venturimeter with inlet diameter 200 mm200\ \text{mm} and throat diameter 100 mm100\ \text{mm} is used to measure the flow of water. The recorded pressure difference between inlet and throat is 35 kPa35\ \text{kPa}. Taking a coefficient of discharge Cd=0.98C_d = 0.98, determine the rate of flow through the pipe. Take ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3.

(a) Derivation of Bernoulli's equation

Consider a fluid element of length dsds and cross-sectional area dAdA along a streamline. Euler's equation of motion along the streamline (per unit mass) for steady flow is:

1ρdpds+gdzds+VdVds=0.\frac{1}{\rho}\frac{dp}{ds} + g\frac{dz}{ds} + V\frac{dV}{ds} = 0.

Multiplying by dsds:

dpρ+gdz+VdV=0.\frac{dp}{\rho} + g\,dz + V\,dV = 0.

Integrating along the streamline for an incompressible fluid (ρ\rho = constant):

pρ+gz+V22=constant.\frac{p}{\rho} + gz + \frac{V^2}{2} = \text{constant}.

Dividing by gg gives the head form:

pρg+z+V22g=constant (total head)\boxed{\frac{p}{\rho g} + z + \frac{V^2}{2g} = \text{constant (total head)}}

Assumptions: (1) flow is steady, (2) fluid is incompressible, (3) fluid is inviscid/frictionless (no energy loss), (4) flow is along a streamline, (5) no energy added/removed by machines.

(b) Venturimeter discharge

Inlet area A1=π4(0.200)2=π4(0.04)=0.0314159 m2A_1 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.200)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.04) = 0.0314159\ \text{m}^2.

Throat area A2=π4(0.100)2=π4(0.01)=0.0078540 m2A_2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.100)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.01) = 0.0078540\ \text{m}^2.

Pressure head difference (horizontal, so z1=z2z_1 = z_2):

h=Δpρg=350001000×9.81=3.5678 m of water.h = \frac{\Delta p}{\rho g} = \frac{35000}{1000 \times 9.81} = 3.5678\ \text{m of water}.

Venturimeter discharge formula:

Q=CdA1A2A12A222gh.Q = C_d \frac{A_1 A_2}{\sqrt{A_1^2 - A_2^2}}\sqrt{2gh}.

Compute terms:

A1A2=0.0314159×0.0078540=2.46740×104 m4.A_1 A_2 = 0.0314159 \times 0.0078540 = 2.46740\times10^{-4}\ \text{m}^4. A12A22=(0.0314159)2(0.0078540)2=9.8696×1046.1685×105=9.2528×104.A_1^2 - A_2^2 = (0.0314159)^2 - (0.0078540)^2 = 9.8696\times10^{-4} - 6.1685\times10^{-5} = 9.2528\times10^{-4}. A12A22=0.030418 m2.\sqrt{A_1^2 - A_2^2} = 0.030418\ \text{m}^2. 2gh=2×9.81×3.5678=69.99=8.366 m/s.\sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2 \times 9.81 \times 3.5678} = \sqrt{69.99} = 8.366\ \text{m/s}.

Therefore:

Q=0.98×2.46740×1040.030418×8.366=0.98×8.1116×103×8.366.Q = 0.98 \times \frac{2.46740\times10^{-4}}{0.030418} \times 8.366 = 0.98 \times 8.1116\times10^{-3} \times 8.366. Q=0.98×0.067862=0.06650 m3/s.Q = 0.98 \times 0.067862 = 0.06650\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}.

Discharge Q0.0665 m3/s=66.5 L/sQ \approx 0.0665\ \text{m}^3/\text{s} = 66.5\ \text{L/s}.

bernoulli-equationenergy-equationventurimeter
3long10 marks

Water flows at a rate of 0.30 m3/s0.30\ \text{m}^3/\text{s} through a horizontal pipe bend that turns the flow through 6060^\circ. The pipe diameter reduces from 300 mm300\ \text{mm} at the inlet to 200 mm200\ \text{mm} at the outlet. The gauge pressure at the inlet is 200 kPa200\ \text{kPa}. Neglecting friction losses and taking ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3, determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force exerted by the water on the bend. Apply the energy (Bernoulli) equation to obtain the outlet pressure.

Given: Q=0.30 m3/sQ = 0.30\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}, D1=0.300 mD_1 = 0.300\ \text{m}, D2=0.200 mD_2 = 0.200\ \text{m}, θ=60\theta = 60^\circ, p1=200 kPap_1 = 200\ \text{kPa}, horizontal bend.

Areas and velocities

A1=π4(0.3)2=0.070686 m2,A2=π4(0.2)2=0.031416 m2.A_1 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.3)^2 = 0.070686\ \text{m}^2,\quad A_2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.2)^2 = 0.031416\ \text{m}^2. V1=QA1=0.300.070686=4.244 m/s.V_1 = \frac{Q}{A_1} = \frac{0.30}{0.070686} = 4.244\ \text{m/s}. V2=QA2=0.300.031416=9.549 m/s.V_2 = \frac{Q}{A_2} = \frac{0.30}{0.031416} = 9.549\ \text{m/s}.

Outlet pressure (Bernoulli, horizontal, frictionless)

p1+12ρV12=p2+12ρV22.p_1 + \tfrac{1}{2}\rho V_1^2 = p_2 + \tfrac{1}{2}\rho V_2^2. p2=200000+12(1000)(4.24429.5492).p_2 = 200000 + \tfrac{1}{2}(1000)(4.244^2 - 9.549^2). V12=18.01, V22=91.18, V12V22=73.17.V_1^2 = 18.01,\ V_2^2 = 91.18,\ \Rightarrow V_1^2 - V_2^2 = -73.17. p2=200000+500×(73.17)=20000036585=163415 Pa=163.42 kPa.p_2 = 200000 + 500\times(-73.17) = 200000 - 36585 = 163415\ \text{Pa} = 163.42\ \text{kPa}.

Momentum equation

Let the inlet flow be along the +x direction; the outlet makes 6060^\circ with the inlet.

Mass flow rate m˙=ρQ=1000×0.30=300 kg/s.\dot{m} = \rho Q = 1000 \times 0.30 = 300\ \text{kg/s}.

Pressure forces: p1A1=200000×0.070686=14137.2 Np_1 A_1 = 200000 \times 0.070686 = 14137.2\ \text{N}; p2A2=163415×0.031416=5133.9 Np_2 A_2 = 163415 \times 0.031416 = 5133.9\ \text{N}.

x-direction (let FxF_x = force of bend on water):

p1A1p2A2cosθ+Fx=m˙(V2cosθV1).p_1 A_1 - p_2 A_2\cos\theta + F_x = \dot{m}(V_2\cos\theta - V_1). 14137.25133.9cos60+Fx=300(9.549cos604.244).14137.2 - 5133.9\cos60^\circ + F_x = 300(9.549\cos60^\circ - 4.244). 14137.22567.0+Fx=300(4.77454.244)=300(0.5305)=159.2.14137.2 - 2567.0 + F_x = 300(4.7745 - 4.244) = 300(0.5305) = 159.2. 11570.2+Fx=159.2Fx=11411.0 N.11570.2 + F_x = 159.2 \Rightarrow F_x = -11411.0\ \text{N}.

y-direction:

0p2A2sinθ+Fy=m˙(V2sinθ0).0 - p_2 A_2\sin\theta + F_y = \dot{m}(V_2\sin\theta - 0). 5133.9sin60+Fy=300(9.549sin60).-5133.9\sin60^\circ + F_y = 300(9.549\sin60^\circ). 4446.0+Fy=300(8.2697)=2480.9.-4446.0 + F_y = 300(8.2697) = 2480.9. Fy=2480.9+4446.0=6926.9 N.F_y = 2480.9 + 4446.0 = 6926.9\ \text{N}.

Force of bend on water =(11411.0, 6926.9) N= (-11411.0,\ 6926.9)\ \text{N}. By Newton's third law, force of water on bend is:

Rx=11411.0 N,Ry=6926.9 N.R_x = 11411.0\ \text{N},\quad R_y = -6926.9\ \text{N}.

Resultant magnitude:

R=11411.02+6926.92=1.3021×108+4.7982×107=1.7819×108=13349 N.R = \sqrt{11411.0^2 + 6926.9^2} = \sqrt{1.3021\times10^8 + 4.7982\times10^7} = \sqrt{1.7819\times10^8} = 13349\ \text{N}.

Direction:

α=tan1(6926.911411.0)=tan1(0.6070)=31.3 below the inlet (+x) axis.\alpha = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{6926.9}{11411.0}\right) = \tan^{-1}(0.6070) = 31.3^\circ\ \text{below the inlet (+x) axis}.

Resultant force on the bend R13.35 kNR \approx 13.35\ kN, acting at 31.331.3^\circ below the inlet flow direction.

momentum-equationpipe-bendforce-analysis
4long10 marks

Two reservoirs whose free-surface difference is 25 m25\ \text{m} are connected by a pipeline 1200 m1200\ \text{m} long and 300 mm300\ \text{mm} in diameter. The Darcy friction factor is f=0.020f = 0.020. Account for the entry loss (kentry=0.5k_{entry} = 0.5) and exit loss (kexit=1.0k_{exit} = 1.0).

(a) Determine the discharge through the pipe.

(b) Express the percentage of the total head consumed by minor losses.

(Take g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81\ \text{m/s}^2. Use the Darcy-Weisbach equation hf=fLV22gDh_f = \frac{fLV^2}{2gD}.)

Given: H=25 mH = 25\ \text{m}, L=1200 mL = 1200\ \text{m}, D=0.300 mD = 0.300\ \text{m}, f=0.020f = 0.020, kentry=0.5k_{entry}=0.5, kexit=1.0k_{exit}=1.0.

(a) Discharge

Applying the energy equation between the two reservoir surfaces, the total available head equals the sum of all losses:

H=(kentry+fLD+kexit)V22g.H = \left(k_{entry} + \frac{fL}{D} + k_{exit}\right)\frac{V^2}{2g}.

Friction coefficient term:

fLD=0.020×12000.300=240.300=80.\frac{fL}{D} = \frac{0.020 \times 1200}{0.300} = \frac{24}{0.300} = 80.

Sum of coefficients:

K=0.5+80+1.0=81.5.K = 0.5 + 80 + 1.0 = 81.5.

So:

25=81.5×V22×9.81=81.5×V219.62.25 = 81.5 \times \frac{V^2}{2 \times 9.81} = 81.5 \times \frac{V^2}{19.62}. V2=25×19.6281.5=490.581.5=6.0184 m2/s2.V^2 = \frac{25 \times 19.62}{81.5} = \frac{490.5}{81.5} = 6.0184\ \text{m}^2/\text{s}^2. V=2.4533 m/s.V = 2.4533\ \text{m/s}.

Area A=π4(0.3)2=0.070686 m2.A = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.3)^2 = 0.070686\ \text{m}^2.

Q=AV=0.070686×2.4533=0.17342 m3/s.Q = A V = 0.070686 \times 2.4533 = 0.17342\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}.

Discharge Q0.1734 m3/s=173.4 L/sQ \approx 0.1734\ \text{m}^3/\text{s} = 173.4\ \text{L/s}.

(b) Percentage of head consumed by minor losses

Velocity head: V22g=6.018419.62=0.30675 m.\frac{V^2}{2g} = \frac{6.0184}{19.62} = 0.30675\ \text{m}.

Minor (entry + exit) losses:

hminor=(0.5+1.0)×0.30675=1.5×0.30675=0.4601 m.h_{minor} = (0.5 + 1.0)\times 0.30675 = 1.5 \times 0.30675 = 0.4601\ \text{m}.

Percentage of total head:

%minor=0.460125×100=1.84%.\%_{minor} = \frac{0.4601}{25}\times 100 = \mathbf{1.84\%}.

(For verification, friction loss hf=80×0.30675=24.54 mh_f = 80 \times 0.30675 = 24.54\ \text{m}, and 24.54+0.46=25.0 m24.54 + 0.46 = 25.0\ \text{m}, which equals HH.)

pipe-flowhead-lossdarcy-weisbach
5long10 marks

(a) Using the Buckingham π\pi-theorem, show that the drag force FF on a body moving through a fluid can be expressed as:

F=ρV2L2ϕ ⁣(ρVLμ),F = \rho V^2 L^2\, \phi\!\left(\frac{\rho V L}{\mu}\right),

where VV is velocity, LL a characteristic length, ρ\rho the density and μ\mu the dynamic viscosity.

(b) A 1:201{:}20 scale model of a submarine is tested in a water tunnel. The prototype is to move at 4 m/s4\ \text{m/s} in sea water (ρ=1025 kg/m3\rho = 1025\ \text{kg/m}^3, μ=1.05×103 Pa\cdotps\mu = 1.05\times10^{-3}\ \text{Pa·s}). The model is tested in fresh water (ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3, μ=1.00×103 Pa\cdotps\mu = 1.00\times10^{-3}\ \text{Pa·s}). For dynamic similarity, find the required model speed and the drag-force scale ratio (prototype/model).

(a) Buckingham π\pi-theorem

The drag force depends on: F=f(ρ,V,L,μ)F = f(\rho, V, L, \mu). Total variables n=5n = 5 (F,ρ,V,L,μF, \rho, V, L, \mu).

Number of fundamental dimensions m=3m = 3 (M, L, T). Number of π\pi-groups =nm=53=2= n - m = 5 - 3 = 2.

Choose repeating variables ρ,V,L\rho, V, L (they include all three dimensions and are independent).

Group π1\pi_1 (contains FF): π1=ρaVbLcF\pi_1 = \rho^a V^b L^c F.

Dimensions: [ρ]=ML3[\rho]=ML^{-3}, [V]=LT1[V]=LT^{-1}, [L]=L[L]=L, [F]=MLT2[F]=MLT^{-2}.

M: a+1=0a=1.M:\ a + 1 = 0 \Rightarrow a = -1. T: b2=0b=2.T:\ -b - 2 = 0 \Rightarrow b = -2. L: 3a+b+c+1=032+c+1=0c=2.L:\ -3a + b + c + 1 = 0 \Rightarrow 3 - 2 + c + 1 = 0 \Rightarrow c = -2. π1=FρV2L2.\therefore \pi_1 = \frac{F}{\rho V^2 L^2}.

Group π2\pi_2 (contains μ\mu): π2=ρaVbLcμ\pi_2 = \rho^a V^b L^c \mu, with [μ]=ML1T1[\mu]=ML^{-1}T^{-1}.

M: a+1=0a=1.M:\ a + 1 = 0 \Rightarrow a = -1. T: b1=0b=1.T:\ -b - 1 = 0 \Rightarrow b = -1. L: 3a+b+c1=031+c1=0c=1.L:\ -3a + b + c - 1 = 0 \Rightarrow 3 - 1 + c - 1 = 0 \Rightarrow c = -1. π2=μρVL=1Re.\therefore \pi_2 = \frac{\mu}{\rho V L} = \frac{1}{Re}.

Functional relation π1=ϕ(π2)\pi_1 = \phi(\pi_2):

FρV2L2=ϕ ⁣(μρVL)=ϕ ⁣(ρVLμ),\frac{F}{\rho V^2 L^2} = \phi\!\left(\frac{\mu}{\rho V L}\right) = \phi\!\left(\frac{\rho V L}{\mu}\right),

so

F=ρV2L2ϕ(Re).\boxed{F = \rho V^2 L^2\,\phi(Re)}.

(b) Model testing — Reynolds number similarity

For a fully submerged body, dynamic similarity requires equal Reynolds numbers:

(ρVLμ)m=(ρVLμ)p.\left(\frac{\rho V L}{\mu}\right)_m = \left(\frac{\rho V L}{\mu}\right)_p.

Solve for model velocity (Lm/Lp=1/20L_m/L_p = 1/20, so Lp/Lm=20L_p/L_m = 20):

Vm=VpρpρmμmμpLpLm.V_m = V_p \cdot \frac{\rho_p}{\rho_m}\cdot\frac{\mu_m}{\mu_p}\cdot\frac{L_p}{L_m}. Vm=4×10251000×1.00×1031.05×103×20.V_m = 4 \times \frac{1025}{1000}\times\frac{1.00\times10^{-3}}{1.05\times10^{-3}}\times 20. Vm=4×1.025×0.95238×20=4×19.524=78.10 m/s.V_m = 4 \times 1.025 \times 0.95238 \times 20 = 4 \times 19.524 = 78.10\ \text{m/s}.

Required model speed Vm78.1 m/sV_m \approx 78.1\ \text{m/s}.

Drag-force ratio. With equal ReRe, ϕ(Re)\phi(Re) is the same, so FρV2L2\frac{F}{\rho V^2 L^2} is equal for model and prototype:

FpFm=ρpVp2Lp2ρmVm2Lm2.\frac{F_p}{F_m} = \frac{\rho_p V_p^2 L_p^2}{\rho_m V_m^2 L_m^2}. =10251000×(478.10)2×202=1.025×(0.051216)2×400.= \frac{1025}{1000}\times\left(\frac{4}{78.10}\right)^2\times 20^2 = 1.025 \times (0.051216)^2 \times 400. =1.025×0.0026231×400=1.025×1.04925=1.0755.= 1.025 \times 0.0026231 \times 400 = 1.025 \times 1.04925 = 1.0755.

Drag-force ratio Fp/Fm1.08F_p/F_m \approx 1.08 (prototype drag is about 1.081.08 times the model drag).

dimensional-analysissimilitudebuckingham-pi
B

Section B: Short Answer Questions

Attempt all questions.

6 questions
6short5 marks

(a) Define dynamic viscosity and kinematic viscosity, and state their SI units.

(b) A liquid has a dynamic viscosity of 1.2 Pa\cdotps1.2\ \text{Pa·s} and a specific gravity of 0.850.85. A flat plate of area 0.6 m20.6\ \text{m}^2 slides over this liquid on an inclined surface, separated by a film 1.5 mm1.5\ \text{mm} thick. If the plate moves at 0.4 m/s0.4\ \text{m/s}, calculate the shear stress in the fluid and the viscous force on the plate. Also find the kinematic viscosity of the liquid.

(a) Definitions

  • Dynamic (absolute) viscosity μ\mu: the property of a fluid that quantifies its resistance to shear/angular deformation, defined by Newton's law of viscosity τ=μdudy\tau = \mu\frac{du}{dy}. SI unit: Pa\cdotps\text{Pa·s} (= N\cdotps/m2\text{N·s/m}^2 = kg/(m·s)).
  • Kinematic viscosity ν\nu: the ratio of dynamic viscosity to mass density, ν=μ/ρ\nu = \mu/\rho. SI unit: m2/s\text{m}^2/\text{s}.

(b) Calculations

μ=1.2 Pa\cdotps\mu = 1.2\ \text{Pa·s}, A=0.6 m2A = 0.6\ \text{m}^2, t=1.5 mm=0.0015 mt = 1.5\ \text{mm} = 0.0015\ \text{m}, u=0.4 m/su = 0.4\ \text{m/s}.

Velocity gradient (linear profile):

dudy=0.40.0015=266.67 s1.\frac{du}{dy} = \frac{0.4}{0.0015} = 266.67\ \text{s}^{-1}.

Shear stress:

τ=μdudy=1.2×266.67=320 N/m2=320 Pa.\tau = \mu\frac{du}{dy} = 1.2 \times 266.67 = 320\ \text{N/m}^2 = \mathbf{320\ Pa}.

Viscous force:

F=τA=320×0.6=192 N.F = \tau A = 320 \times 0.6 = \mathbf{192\ N}.

Density: ρ=0.85×1000=850 kg/m3.\rho = 0.85 \times 1000 = 850\ \text{kg/m}^3.

Kinematic viscosity:

ν=μρ=1.2850=1.412×103 m2/s=1.41×103 m2/s.\nu = \frac{\mu}{\rho} = \frac{1.2}{850} = 1.412\times10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2/\text{s} = \mathbf{1.41\times10^{-3}\ m^2/s}.
fluid-propertiesviscositycapillarity
7short5 marks

The velocity components of a two-dimensional incompressible flow are given by:

u=3x23y2,v=6xy.u = 3x^2 - 3y^2,\qquad v = -6xy.

(a) Verify that the flow satisfies the continuity equation.

(b) Determine whether the flow is irrotational.

(c) Find the stream function ψ\psi for this flow.

(a) Continuity check

For 2-D incompressible flow continuity requires ux+vy=0\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = 0.

ux=6x,vy=6x.\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = 6x,\qquad \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = -6x. ux+vy=6x6x=0. \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = 6x - 6x = 0.\ \checkmark

Continuity is satisfied, so the flow is physically possible.

(b) Rotationality

The zz-component of rotation:

ωz=12(vxuy).\omega_z = \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\right). vx=6y,uy=6y.\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -6y,\qquad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -6y. ωz=12(6y(6y))=12(0)=0.\omega_z = \frac{1}{2}(-6y - (-6y)) = \frac{1}{2}(0) = 0.

Since ωz=0\omega_z = 0, the flow is irrotational.

(c) Stream function ψ\psi

By definition u=ψyu = \frac{\partial\psi}{\partial y} and v=ψxv = -\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial x}.

Integrate uu with respect to yy:

ψ=(3x23y2)dy=3x2yy3+f(x).\psi = \int (3x^2 - 3y^2)\,dy = 3x^2 y - y^3 + f(x).

Differentiate with respect to xx and equate to v-v:

ψx=6xy+f(x)=v=6xy.\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial x} = 6xy + f'(x) = -v = 6xy.

So f(x)=0f(x)=Cf'(x) = 0 \Rightarrow f(x) = C (constant).

ψ=3x2yy3+C.\boxed{\psi = 3x^2 y - y^3 + C}.

(Taking the constant as zero, ψ=3x2yy3\psi = 3x^2 y - y^3.)

kinematicsstream-functioncontinuity
8short5 marks

An oil of dynamic viscosity 0.10 Pa\cdotps0.10\ \text{Pa·s} and specific gravity 0.900.90 flows through a horizontal pipe of diameter 40 mm40\ \text{mm}. The discharge is 0.50 L/s0.50\ \text{L/s}.

(a) Verify that the flow is laminar.

(b) Using the Hagen-Poiseuille equation, determine the pressure drop over a 50 m50\ \text{m} length of the pipe.

Given: μ=0.10 Pa\cdotps\mu = 0.10\ \text{Pa·s}, S=0.90ρ=900 kg/m3S = 0.90 \Rightarrow \rho = 900\ \text{kg/m}^3, D=0.040 mD = 0.040\ \text{m}, Q=0.5 L/s=0.0005 m3/sQ = 0.5\ \text{L/s} = 0.0005\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}, L=50 mL = 50\ \text{m}.

Mean velocity

A=π4(0.040)2=π4(0.0016)=1.25664×103 m2.A = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.040)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.0016) = 1.25664\times10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2. V=QA=0.00051.25664×103=0.39789 m/s.V = \frac{Q}{A} = \frac{0.0005}{1.25664\times10^{-3}} = 0.39789\ \text{m/s}.

(a) Reynolds number

Re=ρVDμ=900×0.39789×0.0400.10=14.3240.10=143.2.Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu} = \frac{900 \times 0.39789 \times 0.040}{0.10} = \frac{14.324}{0.10} = 143.2.

Since Re=143<2000Re = 143 < 2000, the flow is laminar. \checkmark

(b) Pressure drop (Hagen-Poiseuille)

Δp=128μLQπD4.\Delta p = \frac{128\,\mu L Q}{\pi D^4}.

Compute D4=(0.040)4=2.56×106 m4.D^4 = (0.040)^4 = 2.56\times10^{-6}\ \text{m}^4.

Numerator: 128×0.10×50×0.0005=128×0.10×0.025=0.32.128 \times 0.10 \times 50 \times 0.0005 = 128 \times 0.10 \times 0.025 = 0.32.

Denominator: π×2.56×106=8.04248×106.\pi \times 2.56\times10^{-6} = 8.04248\times10^{-6}.

Δp=0.328.04248×106=39789 Pa39.79 kPa.\Delta p = \frac{0.32}{8.04248\times10^{-6}} = 39789\ \text{Pa} \approx \mathbf{39.79\ kPa}.

(Equivalent head loss hf=Δp/(ρg)=39789/(900×9.81)=4.51 m of oilh_f = \Delta p/(\rho g) = 39789/(900\times9.81) = 4.51\ \text{m of oil}.)

laminar-flowhagen-poiseuillepipe-flow
9short5 marks

(a) Define the boundary layer and explain the terms displacement thickness (δ\delta^*) and momentum thickness (θ\theta).

(b) For laminar flow over a flat plate the velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given by uU=32yδ12(yδ)3\frac{u}{U} = \frac{3}{2}\frac{y}{\delta} - \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{y}{\delta}\right)^3. Determine the displacement thickness δ\delta^* in terms of the boundary-layer thickness δ\delta.

(a) Definitions

  • Boundary layer: the thin region of fluid adjacent to a solid surface in which viscous effects are significant and the velocity rises from zero at the wall (no-slip) to (essentially) the free-stream velocity UU.
  • Displacement thickness δ\delta^*: the distance by which the boundary surface would have to be displaced outward so that an ideal (inviscid) flow carries the same mass flow rate as the real (retarded) flow. δ=0δ(1uU)dy.\delta^* = \int_0^\delta \left(1 - \frac{u}{U}\right)dy.
  • Momentum thickness θ\theta: the thickness representing the deficit of momentum flux caused by the boundary layer, θ=0δuU(1uU)dy.\theta = \int_0^\delta \frac{u}{U}\left(1 - \frac{u}{U}\right)dy.

(b) Displacement thickness for the cubic profile

Let η=y/δ\eta = y/\delta, so dy=δdηdy = \delta\,d\eta, with uU=32η12η3.\frac{u}{U} = \frac{3}{2}\eta - \frac{1}{2}\eta^3.

δ=0δ(1uU)dy=δ01(132η+12η3)dη.\delta^* = \int_0^\delta\left(1 - \frac{u}{U}\right)dy = \delta\int_0^1\left(1 - \frac{3}{2}\eta + \frac{1}{2}\eta^3\right)d\eta.

Integrate term by term:

011dη=1,0132ηdη=3212=34,0112η3dη=1214=18.\int_0^1 1\,d\eta = 1,\quad \int_0^1 \frac{3}{2}\eta\,d\eta = \frac{3}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{4},\quad \int_0^1 \frac{1}{2}\eta^3\,d\eta = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{8}. δ=δ(134+18)=δ(86+18)=38δ.\delta^* = \delta\left(1 - \frac{3}{4} + \frac{1}{8}\right) = \delta\left(\frac{8 - 6 + 1}{8}\right) = \frac{3}{8}\delta.

δ=38δ=0.375δ\boxed{\delta^* = \dfrac{3}{8}\delta = 0.375\,\delta}.

boundary-layerdisplacement-thicknesslaminar-flow
10short5 marks

A U-tube differential manometer connects two points AA and BB in a horizontal pipe carrying water. The manometer uses mercury (specific gravity 13.613.6) as the gauge fluid, and the manometer reading (difference in mercury levels) is 250 mm250\ \text{mm}. Both points lie at the same elevation. Determine the pressure difference pApBp_A - p_B between the two points. Take ρw=1000 kg/m3\rho_w = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3 and g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81\ \text{m/s}^2.

Given: gauge fluid mercury SHg=13.6S_{Hg} = 13.6, working fluid water Sw=1.0S_w = 1.0, manometer reading x=250 mm=0.25 mx = 250\ \text{mm} = 0.25\ \text{m}, points AA and BB at the same elevation (horizontal pipe).

For a differential U-tube manometer with both points carrying the same fluid (water) at the same level, the pressure difference is:

pApB=xg(ρHgρw).p_A - p_B = x\,g\,(\rho_{Hg} - \rho_w).

(The water columns of equal height on both limbs cancel because AA and BB are at the same elevation; only the net mercury-versus-water column over the reading xx contributes.)

Substitute:

ρHg=13.6×1000=13600 kg/m3,ρw=1000 kg/m3.\rho_{Hg} = 13.6\times1000 = 13600\ \text{kg/m}^3,\quad \rho_w = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3. pApB=0.25×9.81×(136001000).p_A - p_B = 0.25 \times 9.81 \times (13600 - 1000). pApB=0.25×9.81×12600=0.25×123606=30901.5 Pa.p_A - p_B = 0.25 \times 9.81 \times 12600 = 0.25 \times 123606 = 30901.5\ \text{Pa}.

pApB30.9 kPap_A - p_B \approx 30.9\ \text{kPa}.

Expressed as head of water:

h=pApBρwg=30901.51000×9.81=3.15 m of water.h = \frac{p_A - p_B}{\rho_w g} = \frac{30901.5}{1000\times9.81} = 3.15\ \text{m of water}.
manometryhydrostaticspressure-measurement
11short5 marks

(a) Distinguish between the coefficient of contraction (CcC_c), coefficient of velocity (CvC_v) and coefficient of discharge (CdC_d) for a sharp-edged orifice, and state the relationship between them.

(b) Water discharges through a sharp-edged circular orifice of diameter 50 mm50\ \text{mm} under a constant head of 3.0 m3.0\ \text{m}. The measured actual discharge is 9.0 L/s9.0\ \text{L/s}. If the coefficient of velocity is 0.970.97, determine the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction.

(a) Orifice coefficients

  • Coefficient of contraction CcC_c: ratio of the cross-sectional area of the jet at the vena contracta to the area of the orifice, Cc=ac/aC_c = a_c/a.
  • Coefficient of velocity CvC_v: ratio of the actual velocity of the jet at the vena contracta to the theoretical velocity 2gH\sqrt{2gH}, Cv=Vactual/VtheoreticalC_v = V_{actual}/V_{theoretical}.
  • Coefficient of discharge CdC_d: ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge, Cd=Qactual/QtheoreticalC_d = Q_{actual}/Q_{theoretical}.

Relationship: Cd=Cc×CvC_d = C_c \times C_v.

(b) Calculations

Orifice area:

a=π4(0.050)2=π4(0.0025)=1.96350×103 m2.a = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.050)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.0025) = 1.96350\times10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2.

Theoretical velocity:

Vth=2gH=2×9.81×3.0=58.86=7.6720 m/s.V_{th} = \sqrt{2gH} = \sqrt{2\times9.81\times3.0} = \sqrt{58.86} = 7.6720\ \text{m/s}.

Theoretical discharge:

Qth=aVth=1.96350×103×7.6720=0.015064 m3/s=15.064 L/s.Q_{th} = a\,V_{th} = 1.96350\times10^{-3}\times 7.6720 = 0.015064\ \text{m}^3/\text{s} = 15.064\ \text{L/s}.

Actual discharge Qact=9.0 L/s=0.0090 m3/s.Q_{act} = 9.0\ \text{L/s} = 0.0090\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}.

Coefficient of discharge:

Cd=QactQth=9.015.064=0.59740.597.C_d = \frac{Q_{act}}{Q_{th}} = \frac{9.0}{15.064} = 0.5974 \approx \mathbf{0.597}.

Coefficient of contraction (from Cd=CcCvC_d = C_c C_v):

Cc=CdCv=0.59740.97=0.61590.616.C_c = \frac{C_d}{C_v} = \frac{0.5974}{0.97} = 0.6159 \approx \mathbf{0.616}.

These values (Cd0.60C_d \approx 0.60, Cc0.62C_c \approx 0.62) are typical for a sharp-edged orifice.

flow-measurementorificecoefficient-of-discharge

Frequently asked questions

Where can I find the BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) question paper 2079?
The full BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) 2079 (regular) question paper is available free on Kekkei. You can read every question online and attempt the paper under timed exam conditions.
Does the Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) 2079 paper come with solutions?
Yes. Every question on this Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) past paper includes a step-by-step solution, plus instant AI feedback when you attempt it on Kekkei.
How many marks is the BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) 2079 paper?
The BE Civil Engineering (IOE, TU) Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) 2079 paper carries 80 full marks and is meant to be completed in 180 minutes, across 11 questions.
Is practising this Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) past paper free?
Yes — reading and attempting this Fluid Mechanics (IOE, CE 553) past paper on Kekkei is completely free.