Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT Practice Test 2025
This is the official Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT question paper for 2025, as set in the Model questions examination. It carries 200 full marks and a time allowance of 180 minutes, across 10 questions. On Kekkei you can attempt this Bar Exam — MPT past paper online with a timer, get instant AI feedback and step-by-step solutions, and track the topics where you lose marks — completely free. Whether you are revising for your Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT exam or solving previous years' question papers, this 2025 paper is a great way to practise under real exam conditions.
| Level | Bar Exam — MPT |
|---|---|
| Subject | Bar Exam — MPT |
| Year | 2025 BS |
| Exam session | Model questions |
| Full marks | 200 |
| Time allowed | 180 minutes |
| Questions | 10, all with step-by-step solutions |
Multistate Performance Test
Select the best answer.
An attorney receives a case file containing a client memorandum, relevant statutes, and three appellate court decisions. The attorney is asked to draft an objective memorandum analyzing whether the client’s claim for wrongful termination is likely to succeed. When organizing the analysis, which of the following approaches is most appropriate for the discussion section of the memorandum?
Use the IRAC framework: identify issues, state rules from the authorities, apply the rules to the client’s facts, and reach a conclusion for each issue
An objective legal memorandum uses the IRAC (Issue, Rule, Application, Conclusion) framework. The discussion section should identify the legal issue, state the applicable rule from the provided authorities, apply the rule to the client’s specific facts, and reach a conclusion for each issue. An objective memorandum must present both strengths and weaknesses of the client’s position.
An attorney is drafting a persuasive brief to a trial court in support of a motion for summary judgment. The brief must argue that there is no genuine dispute of material fact and that the client is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. Which of the following best describes the appropriate standard to articulate in the brief?
Summary judgment requires showing no genuine dispute of material fact exists and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law, viewing evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmovant
Under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 56, summary judgment is appropriate when the movant shows no genuine dispute as to any material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. A fact is “material” if it could affect the outcome. A dispute is “genuine” if a reasonable jury could return a verdict for the nonmoving party. The court must view evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmovant.
A client consults an attorney about a neighbor who has been dumping trash on the client’s property. The client wants to “sue for everything possible.” The attorney determines that the client has potential claims for trespass, nuisance, and negligence. The estimated damages are approximately 15,000. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?
Explain the cost-benefit analysis and discuss alternatives such as small claims court, demand letters, or mediation
Under Model Rules of Professional Conduct Rule 2.1, a lawyer shall exercise independent professional judgment and render candid advice. When litigation costs would significantly exceed potential recovery, the attorney should inform the client and discuss alternatives such as small claims court, mediation, or direct negotiation. The ultimate decision belongs to the client.
An attorney is reviewing a case file for a products liability matter. The file contains a trial court opinion ruling in favor of the manufacturer under a negligence theory but not addressing strict liability. The appellate court reversed, holding that strict liability applied and remanding for further proceedings. Which of the following correctly identifies the binding legal principle?
The appellate court’s strict liability holding is the binding authority because higher courts’ holdings supersede lower courts’ rulings on the same issue
In the hierarchy of legal authority, appellate court decisions take precedence over trial court decisions. When an appellate court reverses, its holding becomes controlling law. The appellate court’s holding that strict liability applies is the binding legal principle. On remand, the trial court must apply the strict liability standard as directed.
A state statute provides: “No vehicle shall be operated in any public park.” A city park ranger cites a person for riding an electric scooter through the park. The person argues that an electric scooter is not a “vehicle” within the meaning of the statute. No legislative history or prior judicial interpretation exists. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of statutory interpretation?
Look to the ordinary, plain meaning of the term ‘vehicle’ and determine whether an electric scooter falls within that meaning
When a statute is ambiguous and no legislative history or prior judicial interpretation exists, courts begin with the plain meaning of the statutory language. If the term “vehicle” is not defined in the statute, courts look to the ordinary dictionary definition. Under the plain meaning rule, words should be given their ordinary, everyday meaning unless the legislature has indicated a special definition.
An attorney is analyzing whether a non-compete agreement signed by a former employee is enforceable. The agreement prohibits the employee from working for any competing business within a 200-mile radius for 5 years. The employee was a mid-level sales representative. The jurisdiction follows the majority rule. Which of the following factors is most likely to render this agreement unenforceable?
The geographic scope of 200 miles and duration of 5 years are unreasonably broad relative to the employee’s role
Non-compete agreements are enforceable only if reasonable in scope, duration, and geographic area, and if they protect a legitimate business interest. A 200-mile radius for 5 years for a mid-level sales representative is likely unreasonable in both geographic scope and duration. Most courts find 1–2 years reasonable for sales roles, and the geographic restriction should be limited to the employee’s actual territory.
An attorney is drafting a demand letter on behalf of a client who was injured in a slip-and-fall accident at a grocery store. Which of the following elements should the demand letter include to be most effective?
A clear statement of facts, legal basis for the claim, description of damages, specific monetary demand, and a reasonable deadline for response
An effective demand letter should contain: (1) a clear statement of the facts, (2) identification of the legal theories supporting liability, (3) a description of the injuries and damages, (4) a specific demand for compensation, and (5) a deadline for response. The letter should be professional and factual. Threatening criminal prosecution to gain advantage in a civil matter is unethical.
An attorney represents a plaintiff in a personal injury case. During mediation, the defendant offers to settle for $75,000. The attorney believes this is fair based on the evidence and likely trial outcome, but the client wants to reject the offer and proceed to trial. Which of the following best describes the attorney’s ethical obligation?
Communicate the attorney’s assessment of the offer and the risks of trial, but defer to the client’s informed decision to reject the settlement
Under Model Rules of Professional Conduct Rule 1.2(a), a lawyer shall abide by a client’s decision whether to settle a matter. While the lawyer must communicate settlement offers (Rule 1.4) and may advise the client regarding the merits, the ultimate decision belongs to the client. The attorney should clearly explain the risks and benefits but must defer to the client’s informed decision.
An attorney is researching whether a client’s case is governed by a 2-year or 4-year statute of limitations. The attorney finds: (1) a state supreme court decision from 2018 applying the 2-year period to similar facts; (2) a state appellate court decision from 2022 applying the 4-year period and expressly declining to follow the 2018 decision; and (3) a federal district court decision from 2023 applying the 4-year period in a diversity case. The client’s case will be filed in state trial court. Which authority is binding?
The 2018 state supreme court decision because it is the highest court in the state hierarchy and has not been overruled by the supreme court
In the state court hierarchy, a state supreme court decision is binding on all lower state courts. Even though the appellate court “declined to follow” the supreme court’s 2018 decision, it was not authorized to do so — state supreme court decisions remain binding until overruled by the supreme court itself. The federal district court decision is only persuasive. Therefore, the 2018 state supreme court decision applying the 2-year period is binding.
A federal statute provides a private right of action for “any employee who is terminated in retaliation for reporting violations of federal safety regulations to a government agency.” A worker reports safety violations to her company’s internal compliance department but does not report to any government agency. She is subsequently fired and brings a claim under the statute. The employer moves to dismiss. Which canon of statutory construction most directly supports the employer’s argument?
Expressio unius est exclusio alterius — the expression of one thing implies the exclusion of others
The doctrine of expressio unius est exclusio alterius (the expression of one thing implies the exclusion of others) supports the employer. When a statute specifically identifies reporting to a “government agency,” the deliberate specificity implies the legislature intended to exclude other forms of reporting (such as internal company reporting). If the legislature had intended broader protection, it would have used broader language.
Frequently asked questions
- Where can I find the Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT question paper 2025?
- The full Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT 2025 (Model questions) question paper is available free on Kekkei. You can read every question online and attempt the paper under timed exam conditions.
- Does the Bar Exam — MPT 2025 paper come with solutions?
- Yes. Every question on this Bar Exam — MPT past paper includes a step-by-step solution, plus instant AI feedback when you attempt it on Kekkei.
- How many marks is the Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT 2025 paper?
- The Bar Exam — MPT Bar Exam — MPT 2025 paper carries 200 full marks and is meant to be completed in 180 minutes, across 10 questions.
- Is practising this Bar Exam — MPT past paper free?
- Yes — reading and attempting this Bar Exam — MPT past paper on Kekkei is completely free.